Talk:Épater la bourgeoisie

Latest comment: 1 year ago by Elinruby in topic Difference between masculine or femine forms

What does it mean though?

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This article is not clear at all. 92.26.208.58 (talk) 03:05, 1 October 2009 (UTC)Reply

--E-hadj (talk) 03:02, 24 August 2011 (UTC) This has been addressed, the meaning seems clear "to shock the middle classes"Reply

Imagine Oscar Wilde bringing a heavily mascaraed David Bowie as a date when invited to take tea with the Princess of Wales. This would be an example. Alternately, the phrase may explain most of Dada and Surrealism. HTH Elinruby (talk) 21:45, 11 December 2022 (UTC)Reply

Difference between masculine or femine forms

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I seem to recall reading someplace that some purists were discussing the differences between the masculine and feminine forms of bourgeois(ie). In other words, there is allegedly an additional connotation, aside from merely indicating the sex of the subject in question. Any experts know the answer? — Preceding unsigned comment added by E-hadj (talkcontribs) 03:00, 24 August 2011 (UTC)Reply

pretty expert, never heard of that. I find it plausible however that such a thing might exist in some given version of French. "La bourgeoisie" is always feminine. Just is, don't ask why. "Une bourgeoise" is someone you might address as "my good woman". The masculine form, "un bourgeois", connotes a banker or a grocer (for example) depending on whether they belong to the "haute bourgeoisie" or are "petit-bourgeois". I think that in this instance it just means giving conventional people something to be shocked about. Elinruby (talk) 21:51, 11 December 2022 (UTC)Reply