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There is no reason this should be so. Think about it: if a proper noun is really proper, then it can never be pluralised. The moment we pluralise it we are creating a bastard, so it really doesn't matter much either way. Is Greeces the plural of Greece? Is the plural of Germany Germanies? In fact, for the latter, it is and has been used, which is evidence that pluralisation of words that are proper nouns in other contexts follows the same rules of pluralisation as any common nouns. Srnec (talk) 05:11, 2 August 2008 (UTC)Reply