Wikipedia:Reference desk/Archives/Language/2019 April 30

Language desk
< April 29 << Mar | April | May >> May 1 >
Welcome to the Wikipedia Language Reference Desk Archives
The page you are currently viewing is a transcluded archive page. While you can leave answers for any questions shown below, please ask new questions on one of the current reference desk pages.


April 30

edit

ENGVAR and two-wheeled human-propelled vehicles

edit

Does the term "bicycle helmet" sound natural in en:gb, or is it an Americanism that would be rendered "cycle helmet" or "cycling helmet" by Britons? Thanks to the Master Singers, I know that I should not loiter in the roadway or walk along cycle tracks, and in general "cycling" seems more friendly to en:gb than "bicycling" does, but I'm not at all sure. Nyttend (talk) 00:09, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]

I've only ever heard "cycle helmet" or occasionally "bike helmet" in the UK, though the latter can also mean a motorcycle helmet. (I suppose strictly speaking "cycling helmet" is more correct as it is not part of the machine, but that is uncommon in daily speech.)--Shantavira|feed me 08:25, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
Bicycle helmet is certainly used in the UK: [1] [2] [3]. Bike and to a lesser extent cycle would be more likely in informal contexts. HenryFlower 11:22, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]

"Nope"

edit

Is the word "nope" ENGVAR-related? It is not in my (active) American vocabulary. I sometimes see it used where I might say "no way!" I am always reminded of this at WP:ERRORS2, where "Nope" indicates an unresolved problem. Here, I would simply say "No". Jmar67 (talk) 02:21, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Very common in America, though maybe regional. Both "nope" and "yep" have the p-sound at the end to add emphasis.[4]Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots02:42, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
The "p" is kind of a way of expressing the closing of the mouth at the end of an utterance (to emphasize finality) within ordinary English phonemes. Similarly, French "oui" is often prolonged with a voiceless vowel at the end, and when the mouth closes slightly on this voiceless [i] vowel, it results in a [ç] palatal fricative sound. When [wiç] is brought back within French phonemes, it becomes "ouiche" [wiʃ]...   -- AnonMoos (talk) 03:30, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
Interesting about "oui". I am aware of the variation "ouais", which according to Wiktionary seems to apply here. At any rate, I would never say "nope" and might catch myself saying "yep" on rare occasions. Jmar67 (talk) 03:55, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
Or even more colloquially, "Yup!" ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots13:51, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
I wouldn't say that either. Think you're right about regional. Jmar67 (talk) 14:10, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
Or maybe generational. ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots14:27, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
It's been around for longer than any Wikipedia editor. The Rambling Man (talk) 14:28, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
I think Bugs may have been suggesting that kids these days don't use it. --Trovatore (talk) 16:18, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
Actually it's Jmar67 who's suggesting that. I don't know how true it is. I would also point out that "No way!" has also been around a long time. ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots19:38, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
In "ouais", the mouth is open at the end...   AnonMoos (talk) 05:51, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
"Nope" is used in Australian English, though this mature aged speaker of that variant thinks it's probably less common now that 50 years ago. HiLo48 (talk) 02:26, 1 May 2019 (UTC)[reply]
Ditto for the UK. The New Partridge Dictionary of Slang and Unconventional English: J-Z by Eric Partridge (p. 1383) says: "no, emphatically no, US, 1888". Alansplodge (talk) 17:18, 5 May 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Another ENGVAR question: "from 1990"

edit

I often look at articles translated from German by non-native speakers of English. Expressions like "from 1990", meaning "starting in 1990", are common in these articles because that is a direct translation of the German "ab 1990". I do not consider "from 1990" used this way to be idiomatic in AmE, but I wonder how the BrE people feel about it. Jmar67 (talk) 12:39, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Broadly agree, but it would depend on context. "From 1990 to 2019, the number of Wikipedia articles increased by a lot" is cromulent. "From 1990, the number of Wikipedia articles increased by a lot" is definitely awkward and not idiomatic to me (CanEng). Matt Deres (talk) 13:07, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
Would "From 1990 onward...?" be idiomatic? Just curious here. Lectonar (talk) 13:10, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
For me, yes. That is an alternative to "starting in". Jmar67 (talk) 13:29, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
Me too. Without the addendum of a year or some other qualifier, I would usually replace the "From" with "Since". Matt Deres (talk) 13:40, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
"Since" could imply after 1990. ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots13:51, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
"Since" would imply continuation to the present. My example was intended for actions concluded: "From 1990 she sang in Munich and from 1995 in Berlin. She retired in 2002." Jmar67 (talk) 14:01, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
You also see this on pricing. Example: "Bedding from $99." ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots14:28, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
I don't think I'd say that either, but anyway it's different from the usage with dates. The simplest extended form would be "from $99 up" in the one case, "from 1990 on" in the other. --76.69.46.228 (talk) 04:24, 1 May 2019 (UTC)[reply]
Yes. English speakers tend to shorten things. American Midwestern example: "Going to the store." "Can I come with?" ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots13:04, 1 May 2019 (UTC)[reply]
Yeah, in that case, neither "from" nor "since" really works; they both imply continuous activity (and, as discussed, the "from" structure in your example would not be correct). Matt Deres (talk) 20:42, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]
I used to work for a Jewish man. He was from Poland (he fought in the free Polish army having escaped to England before the Nazi occupation). I believe that German uses the "come with" construction - does Yiddish also, and what about Hebrew? He used it when speaking English, but apart from that I've never encountered it. 2A00:23A8:830:A600:F95E:A4FC:C51D:9EA2 (talk) 15:33, 1 May 2019 (UTC)[reply]
Standard German would say "Kann ich mitkommen?", very literally "Can I with come?" and idiomatically translated as "Can I come/go along?" or "Can I come/go with you?". Also "Ich komme mit" (literal "I come with", idiomatic "I'll come/go with you"). Jmar67 (talk) 15:49, 1 May 2019 (UTC)[reply]
But the second one brooks no contradiction. I will come with you (..if you want it or not..), whereas the question is the polite way of doing it. Lectonar (talk) 11:47, 2 May 2019 (UTC)[reply]
I'm not sure why you have a "But" in there. "I'll go with you" is also definitive. Or would "I am going with you" be closer? My German is not great. Matt Deres (talk) 15:42, 7 May 2019 (UTC)[reply]