Talk:Wine/water paradox

Latest comment: 3 years ago by Vaughan Pratt in topic dt/t ?

Possible misunderstanding edit

One of the hazards of a problem like this is that "pure" mathematicians, including many probabilists, will misunderstand it and say, for example, that no well-posed math problem has been identified, which is true but misses the point. Michael Hardy (talk) 20:44, 15 May 2019 (UTC)Reply

dt/t ? edit

If invariance under the mapping   is desired (making the roles of water and wine identical), how about the measure dt/t?

 

so

 

is a probability measure on Borel subsets of [1/3, 3]. And

 

so x and 1/x are identically distributed. Michael Hardy (talk) 20:56, 15 May 2019 (UTC)Reply

Wouldn't it be simpler to let y be uniformly distributed on [¼,¾] and take x = (1 - y)/y, so that 1/x = y/(1 - y)? Then the distribution of 1/x is the mirror image of x (substituting 1 - y for y turns 1 - y into y). Vaughan Pratt (talk) 05:35, 20 March 2021 (UTC)Reply

Wine-alcohol conflation edit

The parenthetical " (i.e. 25-75% alcohol)" would appear to assume that the wine is 200 proof, i.e. 100% alcohol by volume. Obviously we shouldn't solve this by calling it the alcohol/water paradox. Options I can think of would be to rephrase the parenthetical as "(i.e. 25-75% wine)", or simply delete it altogether. Any preferences? Vaughan Pratt (talk) 04:20, 20 March 2021 (UTC)Reply