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I think the term "normal series" is misleading. while "normal series" is correctly linked to an article discussing subnormal AND normal series, that exact article says that subnormal series is a weaker sense of normal series by giving the term normal series the property that each subgroup in the series is also normal in the first group. — Preceding unsigned comment added by Mangoish (talk • contribs) 18:47, 9 November 2012 (UTC)
It appears to me that in the article of Baumslag proving this theorem, the proof is a rediscovery of Zassenhaus' proof. It appears that Zassenhaus' original proof was in German, whereas Baumslag's proof is in English, so perhaps the language gap accounts for this rediscovery. Tcamps42 (talk) 17:26, 19 April 2022 (UTC)