Why step from general (nonlinear) to particular (linear) minimization problem? edit

It seems to me that in the formal definition section, the author(s) has/have made a particularization step from the thitherto more general and unspecified (nonlinear) (cost-)function f(x) to the more particular linear cost function  . Was that intentional? If so, please explain.Redav (talk) 00:33, 14 May 2020 (UTC)Reply