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The intro seems a bit misleading. The popular vote swing was mostly because the Democrats ran 12 more candidates, and the Republicans two less. If you only look at districts where both parties ran candidates in both elections, the Republican share of the two-party vote went from 60.5% to 57.3%, and they went from 41/44 seats to 40/44. The swing is mostly due to the candidates who win eight or ten thousand votes each in unwinnable seats, not a huge shift in voter preferences.
This is original research, so I haven't added it to the article. But it makes me wary of the wording on that introduction. Should we tone it down a bit? Thanks. Alsadius (talk) 18:04, 27 October 2020 (UTC)Reply