Wikipedia:Reference desk/Archives/Mathematics/2022 March 21

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March 21

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Change of variables formula

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In the article Integration by substitution the following change of variables formula is mentioned:

Let φ : [a, b] → I be a differentiable function with a continuous derivative, where IR is an interval. Suppose that f : IR is a continuous function. Then
 

My question is how to apply this is the measure theory sense without   being injective (  is real valued and real Borel measurable and additional hypothesis may be imposed on it too). Specifically, I want to apply this formula to the case of finding the PDF of a function of a real valued random variable.-- Abdul Muhsy talk 04:01, 21 March 2022 (UTC)[reply]

OK I see that now.- Abdul Muhsy talk 08:59, 21 March 2022 (UTC)[reply]

Integrands equal when integral is

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In the article Integration by substitution, it is mentioned that

  so
 

Can someone explain how the first equality implies the second?- Abdul Muhsy talk 09:01, 21 March 2022 (UTC)[reply]

By using the linearity of the integration operator, it follows from this statement:
If   for all   function   vanishes on  .
This assumes that   is continuous and that we are dealing with measurable sets, where each   has some measurable neighbourhood    --Lambiam 09:36, 21 March 2022 (UTC)[reply]

"Distance-constant" continuous injective functions

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Suppose we have a metric space   and a continuous injective function   (treating   as a metric space with the usual Euclidean metric) satisfying  . Does it follow that   for some constant  ? My intuition says no, given that as soon as one removes the injectivity constraint, one can immediately take the mapping from the real line to the circle in   (with the Euclidean metric restricted to the subspace) given by  , but I have yet to construct a counterexample or a proof. GalacticShoe (talk) 22:43, 21 March 2022 (UTC)[reply]

By putting   in the sought implication we see that it requires   Isn't the corkscrew mapping   given by   a counterexample?  --Lambiam 08:36, 22 March 2022 (UTC)[reply]
I think you're right; that's a nice example. There may be more exotic ones as well. I'm thinking take K to be the torus defined as the quotient of R×R under  . Then define f(r) = (ar, br) where a and b are constants with a/b irrational. --RDBury (talk) 09:15, 22 March 2022 (UTC)[reply]
PS. A slightly less exotic, but equivalent version of this is f(x) = (a cos(cx), a sin(cx), b cos(dx), b sin(dx)) mapping R to R4, assuming a, b, c, d > 0 and d/c is irrational. Or basically take any curve RRn whose generalized curvatures according to the Frenet–Serret formulas are constant. For n=2 this is either a circle or a line and for n=3 it's a circle, line or helix. I don't know if all curves for n>3 are known, but it seems like they would be. --RDBury (talk) 09:46, 22 March 2022 (UTC)[reply]
Did you mean (a cos(cx), a sin(cx), b cos(dx), b sin(dx))?  --Lambiam 20:28, 22 March 2022 (UTC)[reply]
Yes, corrected. Nice catch. --RDBury (talk) 22:01, 22 March 2022 (UTC)[reply]
Thank you so much for your reply! I'll look into seeing if I can find a list of constant-curvature curves in  . Just out of curiosity, would you happen to know if a smooth curve satisfying the above property must be of constant generalized curvature? (Also, would you happen to know if there are non-smooth curves satisfying the above property as well?) Many thanks! GalacticShoe (talk) 16:56, 22 March 2022 (UTC)[reply]
Ah yes, that works! Thank you so much, you've been a great help. GalacticShoe (talk) 16:50, 22 March 2022 (UTC)[reply]