Wikipedia:Reference desk/Archives/Mathematics/2016 September 8

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September 8

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Model theory

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Let's say we are given two first-order formulas   - each of which has two free variables. Let's assume that it follows from Peano system that for every   there exists   satisfying both:   - and  .

Is it provable (maybe by Compactness theorem? ) that Peano system has a model in which, for every   there exists   satisfying both:   - and   for every finite  ?

HOTmag (talk) 17:48, 8 September 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Either I'm misunderstanding what you're asking, or it's trivial. Your premise is that PA proves  ? In any nonstandard model, fix   nonstandard. Then for every   there is a   with  , by assumption. This   is as desired.--2406:E006:384B:1:8C1E:B081:1ABF:3C81 (talk) 12:56, 9 September 2016 (UTC)[reply]
Thanks to your important comment, I've just changed slightly my original post. Please have a look at the current version of my question. HOTmag (talk) 13:31, 9 September 2016 (UTC)[reply]
I think this still isn't what you mean to ask. Let   be a tautology, and let   be  . Then it's certainly true that for every pair   there is a   -- namely,  . But there is no   that works for every finite  .--2406:E006:384B:1:8C1E:B081:1ABF:3C81 (talk) 14:34, 9 September 2016 (UTC)[reply]
That's what I meant. Thanks to your trivial example, I see I was wrong about my assumption. Thank you. HOTmag (talk) 15:21, 9 September 2016 (UTC)[reply]