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May 23 edit

Differential Equation edit

Does the differential equation x2 * d2x/dt2 = k have a name? (All I've figured out about this so far is that I don't remember enough about differential equations. I'm not getting anything on solving it except errors.) Thank you. RJFJR (talk) 02:45, 23 May 2024 (UTC)Reply

As to a solution, you could guess that one might be some power of   and accordingly substitute   (where   and   are constants), then solve for   and then solve for  . catslash (talk) 09:02, 23 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
Then, since nothing in the equation depends on the absolute value of  , you could apply an arbitrary time-shift to get a slightly more general solution  . catslash (talk) 09:20, 23 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
You're right. Thank you. p=2/3, I was not expecting that. I appreciate it. RJFJR (talk) 14:14, 23 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
This is an autonomous second order equation. If you write   and multiply with  , you find   so   for some constant  . Solve for   and you get a separable first order equation. —Kusma (talk) 14:35, 23 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
Thank you. I need to dig out the old textbook and start reading. RJFJR (talk) 19:25, 23 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
catslash's solution is a one-parameter family (indexed by  ) of very nice solutions, but in general you should be able to solve the initial value problem for any initial values of   and  , so you'll get a two parameter family. It is easy to show that the solution exists; you can get an implicit formula from Mathematica or other symbolic computation software. —Kusma (talk) 12:17, 24 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
Autonomous system (mathematics)#Special case: x″ = f(x) gives   as a two-parameter function of  , but this function looks uninvertable except for the choice of the parameter   which makes it correspond to my guessed solution. catslash (talk) 22:43, 25 May 2024 (UTC)Reply


May 27 edit

Szekeres Conjecture edit

Is there something like Szekeres Conjecture, which is different from Erdős–Szekeres theorem? ExclusiveEditor Notify Me! 19:00, 27 May 2024 (UTC)Reply

The sum will never reach 2 edit

I saw a reference to Zeno's paradoxes#Dichotomy paradox in a comic strip. The article does not mention the sum of 1, one half, one quarter, and so on. Where is that sum?— Vchimpanzee • talk • contributions • 22:34, 27 May 2024 (UTC)Reply

The sum is 1 if you sum an infinite number of terms. Bubba73 You talkin' to me? 23:42, 27 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
Would you believe 2? --142.112.143.8 (talk) 03:59, 28 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
I was hoping to link the sum I was asking about from the Zeno's paradox article.— Vchimpanzee • talk • contributions • 14:37, 28 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
Well, Google actually gave me 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 + ⋯.— Vchimpanzee • talk • contributions • 14:37, 28 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
Our article does not mention a sum, but an infinite regression of tasks. Each task has a subtask that must be completed before the whole task can be completed. This is (in Zeno's analysis) as impossible as the task of enumerating all unit fractions in order of magnitude, so that 1/1000 has to come before 1/999 – you can't even start.  --Lambiam 15:44, 28 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
Do you think the Zeno article should mention the other?— Vchimpanzee • talk • contributions • 18:58, 28 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
To be more precise, the section Dichotomy paradox does not mention this sum. Elsewhere, in the introductory paragraph of the section Paradoxes, it is stated that Zeno's paradoxes are often presented as an issue with the sum of an infinite series, although none of the original ancient sources has Zeno discussing the sum of an infinite series. In my opinion it can be given a place in the analysis of the Achilles and the Tortoise paradox, but not so for Zeno's dichotomy paradox.  --Lambiam 20:08, 28 May 2024 (UTC)Reply


May 29 edit

What is 'lakh' and 'crore'? How can I understand Indian articles with strings such as 1,00,00, 1,50,00 and so on ? edit

sirs i really don't understand this lakh and crore business which has lately become very common on the internet apparently it is some kind of indian custom, indian reckoning please tell me how can you place the comma after two digits only (counting from the front) firstly how can you go beyond lakh and crore how can i reckon a number with eight digits 1,00,00,00 ??? one hundred lakh and how many crore ? if a crore is one tenth of a lakh, hold on, one lakh is just a hundred thousand ? so how much is a crode please?? if this 1,00,00 is a lakh entire sirs please forgive my discursiveness i was trying to read up each and everything on this subject and i could not put my head around it kindly direct me to any pertinent source where i can understand lakh, crore, indian customary numbers 2601:481:80:6E60:6C4B:56AE:F2AB:2844 (talk) 23:55, 29 May 2024 (UTC)Reply

We have articles on Lakh and Crore. Do they answer your question? They seem to be a feature of the Indian counting system, and not common in other countries. --RDBury (talk) 00:27, 30 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
I think I have studied very well and I am understanding it now.surely this will improve my scores in JEE.the invigilators and examiners will be very pleased with my fast reckoning. thank you sirs 2601:481:80:6E60:6846:DCBF:5125:F19D (talk) 05:18, 31 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
If you see commas in unexpected places, the easiest is to ignore them. 12,34,567 is the same number as 1234567.  --Lambiam 06:20, 30 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
Kindly don't be writing just any x y z, how can it be same amount if the crode and lakh is arranged in a different manner, since a crode and lakh have values each of their own, they cannot be mingled around or preponed 2601:481:80:6E60:6846:DCBF:5125:F19D (talk) 05:17, 31 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
They are interconvertible values. One crore is equal to 100 lakh, and also equal to 10 million. So 3.5 crore + 7 lakh = 35000000 + 700000 = 35700000, which you can also write as 3,57,00,000 or as 35,700,000 or as 35 700 000.  --Lambiam 09:27, 31 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
In many parts of Europe we use a decimal comma, not a decimal dot. You ignore those at your peril - if your honorarium is 3,14 Euro per hour, it's quite different from 314 Euro per hour ;-). --Stephan Schulz (talk) 18:17, 5 June 2024 (UTC)Reply
My response was directed at the original poster, 2601:... Before responding, I checked that the IP geolocates to a staunchly decimally dotted area. The JEE, for which they are preparing, also uses decimal points.  --Lambiam 20:56, 5 June 2024 (UTC)Reply

May 30 edit

A proof attempt for the transcendence of ℼ edit

The proposition "if   is rational then   is algebraic" is comprehensively true,
and is equivalent to "if   is inalgebraic then   is irrational" (contrapositive).

My question is this:
The proofs for the transcendence of   are of course by contradiction.
Now, do you think it is possible to prove somehow the proposition "if   is algebraic then   is rational", reaching a contradiction?
Meaning, by assuming   is algebraic and using some of its properties, can we conclude that it must be algebraic of degree 1 (rational) – contradicting its irrationality?

I know the proposition "if   is algebraic then   is rational" is not comprehensively true (  is a counterexample),
but I am basically asking if there exist special cases   such that it does hold for them. יהודה שמחה ולדמן (talk) 18:48, 30 May 2024 (UTC)Reply

There are real-valued expressions   such that the statement "if   is algebraic,   is rational" is provable, but this does not by itself establish transcendence. For example, substitute   for   Given the irrationality of   proving the implication for   would give yet another proof of the transcendence of  . I see no plausible approach to proving this implication without proving transcendence on the way, but I also see no a priori reason why such a proof could not exist.  --Lambiam 19:24, 30 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
Also, for a while now I am looking to prove the transcendence of   by trying to generalize Bourbaki's/Niven's proof that π is irrational for the  th-degree polynomial:
 
Unfortunately, I failed to show that   is a non-zero integer (aiming for a contradiction).
Am I even on the right track, or is my plan simply doomed to fail and I am wasting my time?
Could the general Leibniz rule help here? יהודה שמחה ולדמן (talk) 12:28, 2 June 2024 (UTC)Reply
I suppose that you mean to define   where the   are integers, and hope to derive a contradiction from the assumption   For that, doesnt'it suffice to show that the value of the integral is non-zero?
I'm afraid I'm not the right person to judge whether this approach offers a glimmer of hope.  --Lambiam 15:40, 2 June 2024 (UTC)Reply

May 31 edit

Meridional Radius of Curvature edit

Hi y'all.

 
(φ, β = geodetic, reduced latitudes)


If   equals the "meridional radius of curvature", then what does

  equal ("reduced meridional radius of curvature"?) and what is its symbol (rM(β)? )?

--2601:19C:4A01:7057:4C27:AD22:B7E2:D04A (talk) 15:35, 31 May 2024 (UTC)Reply

I cannot relate the quantity   to a radius of curvature. It is the speed of a particle moving along the meridian for  
For the radius of curvature of the meridian at reduced latitude   I find
 
As far as I know there is no standardized symbol for this. I don't think that the notation   is common either.  --Lambiam 20:18, 31 May 2024 (UTC)Reply
Of course   and   are valid (though here written with e and e' instead of a and b), but β is not given its own integral identity, even though  . 2601:19C:4A01:3561:4C27:AD22:B7E2:D04A (talk) 03:23, 1 June 2024 (UTC)Reply
I don't understand what it means that   is "valid".
The angles   and   are related by
 
Here is a numeric example, randomly generated:
  = 239.2188308713,   = 192.1989786957
  = 1.3880315979,   = 1.4233752785
Then
  = 292.5274922901
 
   = 292.5274922901
This is not a numerical coincidence. For comparison,
  = 237.8141595361.
 --Lambiam 09:28, 1 June 2024 (UTC)Reply
Right,   but  !
So what is  , which equals  ?--2601:19C:4A01:650:1123:BA2C:D056:629 (talk) 15:00, 1 June 2024 (UTC)Reply
Writing   for the meridional radius of curvature, a variable that depends on   (or, equivalently, on  ), we have:
 
This is the tangential speed of a particle moving along the meridian when   in which case the rhs equals    --Lambiam 17:30, 1 June 2024 (UTC)Reply
Okay, so you are saying   is the variable for tangential speed (let's call it "S") and using the chain rule:  M(φ) = S(β(φ))β'(φ) and S(β) = M(φ(β))φ'(β), therefore M(φ)dφ = S(β)dβ.
But:    and   , while   and  , so S is a radius, not speed (I know, speed here is a calculus thing, not literally "speed", but still) and I should point out S(90-β) = R(β), geocentric radius! --2601:19C:4A01:650:19F3:4CE1:97CE:10D5 (talk) 19:09, 1 June 2024 (UTC)Reply
I also just figured out  , the prime vertical radius of curvature and conversely, of course,  .  --2601:19C:4A01:6E9F:1937:5ABC:70DF:B9B3 (talk) 15:38, 3 June 2024 (UTC)Reply

My $0.02:   plays a favored role in defining the radius of curvature because this latitude defines the normal vector to the meridian and so is directly related to the definition of curvature. The corresponding expression in terms of   is useful in carrying out integrals but I don't think it's necessary to invent a name for the integrand. cffk (talk) 19:53, 3 June 2024 (UTC)Reply

Technically, isn't "S" the integrand for geodetic distance (just here focused on the north-south meridian distance, either geodetically or as the parametric version of the plane Pythagorean distance), with respect to σ rather than β? I've seen some articles define the geodetic "s" as the spacetime variable, itself!  --2601:19C:4A01:C40C:A8A9:9580:7416:38DE (talk) 19:29, 4 June 2024 (UTC)Reply
While the terms meridian, latitude and geodesic suggest a problem in spheroidal geometry, everything going on here can mathematically be seen as taking place on a good old planar ellipse. The formula
 
gives the elliptic arc length between two points on an ellipse in the standard parametric representation   using   as the name of the parameter. It is easily seen to be equivalent to the formula given at Ellipse § Arc length.  --Lambiam 04:43, 5 June 2024 (UTC)Reply

June 1 edit

Antiprisms in Higher dimensions. edit

Antiprism talks about higher dimensions, but only in the context of four dimensional Antiprisms created from a Polyhedron and its Polar dual. Is there any reason not to extend this to, for example, being able to make an n+1 dimensional Antiprism out of the n dimensional cube and the n dimensional orthoplex or the 24-cell with itself? Also would the 24-cell anti-prism defined this way be a uniform 5-polytope or is the fact that all but two of the 4-dimensional facets are octohedral pyramids make it non-uniform?Naraht (talk) 19:51, 1 June 2024 (UTC)Reply

That section also mentions five-dimensional antiprisms:
"However, there exist four-dimensional polyhedra that cannot be combined with their duals to form five-dimensional antiprisms.[8]"
Apparently, the generalization to higher dimensions is not straightforward.  --Lambiam 04:07, 2 June 2024 (UTC)Reply
However, the fact that it needs to be constructed *probably* means that it doesn't apply to any of the six regular 4-polytopes. Looked at the paper on www.semanticscholar.org . Interesting.Naraht (talk) 16:02, 3 June 2024 (UTC)Reply



June 6 edit