Talk:Declension of Greek nouns in Latin

Latest comment: 2 years ago by Kanjuzi in topic Pelagus

Attempting consolidation edit

As part of an attempt to improve this article and the project to which it belongs, I have started a consolidation attempt by referencing it as the main article in the Greek declension's section of Latin declension. I realise it also appears in this article's See also section, but I thought it may be useful both for a reader, and to decrease the orphanhood of this one. More improvements to come. Discussion most appreciated! Axciom (talk) 13:03, 20 November 2017 (UTC)Reply

Lack of citations edit

There are no citations for any of these tables, and some of the forms given are incorrect. For example, Orpheus is two syllables in the poets, not three; neither Perseus nor Gildersleeve and Lodge record a genitive *Orpheus. The dative of Orpheus is Orphei (2 syllables) at Virg. Ecl. 4.55 and Orpheo (2 syllables) at Ovid Am. 3.9.20, but neither is recorded here. The accusative singular *Sōcratōn is completely wrong. The article therefore needs cleaning up, and references to a reliable grammar need to be added. Kanjuzi (talk) 15:10, 23 September 2019 (UTC)Reply

One might add to the questionable forms: *ēchum, ēchūs, ēchuī etc., which do not actually occur in any author on Perseus. There is no reason to suppose that the first A of Atlās is long. Kanjuzi (talk) 15:30, 23 September 2019 (UTC)Reply

Pelagus edit

The word ‘pelagus’ is missing; apparently it's neuter and it has a plural in -ē. I find it strange that it takes just this one irregular ending from the Greek rather than being either completely regular with a plural in -a or mostly borrowing the Greek forms. For example, why doesn't the genetive end in -ūs like is the case for ‘echo’? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 77.61.180.106 (talk) 03:48, 22 November 2021 (UTC)Reply

The plural pelagē apparently occurs only once in Latin literature (Lucretius 6.619; possibly also at Lucr. 5.35, where some texts have the genitive pelagī). The accusative singular pelagum occurs in Vitruvius. Apart from that the singular seems to go like vīrus. It's a fairly (though not entirely) poetic word, so perhaps Lucretius felt justified in using a Greek plural. It also scans more easily when it ends in a long vowel. Kanjuzi (talk) 11:16, 22 November 2021 (UTC)Reply