Talk:Sindarin

Hên and hîn

In the examples of the i-umlaut/affection, there is an example given as hên becoming hîn in the plural. Now, it says that this means child and children and this made me think of Narn i Chîn Húrin or The Children of Húrin. Narn i Chîn Húrin was written as Narn i Hîn Húrin so English speakers wouldn't pronounced the ch the same way as in church, and this was a choice made by Christopher Tolkien, IIRC. He later came to regret this. So, my question is more along the lines of, where this example is from and if it's perhaps supposed to be written with <ch> rather than <h>. Anyway, just a thought I had while randomly looking at Wikipedia. 212.55.53.166 (talk) 03:53, 31 March 2022 (UTC)

You are correct about this change: “... Narn i Chîn Húrin, which is so spelled at all occurrences, but was improperly changed by me [= Christopher Tolkien] to Narn i Hîn Húrin in Unfinished Tales (because I did not want Chîn to be pronounced like Modern English chin)” (The Lost Road, History of Middle-earth IV, p. 322, §25). However there can be no real doubt that “child/children” on its own is hên/hîn, e. g. in War of the Jewels, History of Middle-earth XI, p. 403 Tolkien writes: “S[indarin] has hên, pl[ural] hîn, mostly used as a prefix in patronymics or metronymics: as Hîn Húrin ‘The Children of Húrin’”. What makes the difference is the article: hîn means “children”, but if you add the plural article in “the” it triggers mutation and the whole phrase becomes i chîn “the childern” (i hîn would be the mutation result of a hypothetical word *sîn with the singular article instead). Lammengollon (talk) 11:08, 21 June 2022 (UTC)

WP:NOTFORUM. Chiswick Chap (talk) 17:41, 26 September 2022 (UTC)

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